Answer
Kant's concept of universalizability states that any action taken must be able to be applied universally, without exception. Kant believes that moral laws can be derived from this concept by considering whether an action taken would be beneficial to everyone if it were applied universally. For example, if one were to consider the moral law of not stealing, it would be beneficial to everyone if no one were allowed to steal, as no one would have their possessions taken away from them. Kant's view is that moral laws can be derived from universalizability, and I believe he is correct. This is because if an action is beneficial to everyone, then it should be applied universally, and this is the basis of Kant's concept of universalizability.